What do you think of this situation????
My name is on the title and deed but i am nowhere on the loan papers whatsoever. Our sale date is set for July 16th 2008.(sad to say) and since i wasn’t on the loan for the original mortgage, i wondered if i could bid on the property at the sale? Any info is appreciated. Also, any nasty or rude comments about my “financial” situation, please don’t waste the time to post if it isn’t decent and constructive to the question. Thanks
The original loan was for 5.75% FIXED rate. So why would the payment go from $ 547.00 to $ 854.00 (taxes and ins already inc)??? Government Loan even????
My dad is willing to go to the sale and since his credit score is 865!!! I think he can get a pretty good loan rate, He, if he has the winning bid, will put my name on the home and also use the insurance clause that if anything happens to him the home is paid for. This will in turn revert the home to me paid in full. He suggested this, not me. Does this sound plauseable
The original loan is a USDA Rural Development 30 year FIXED interest loan. GOVERNMENT!!!!
My husband was the only one on the Loan Note.
Checked first off, taxes and ins never changed.
Didn’t say I was the one bidding persay, My father is going to bid and he has already spoken with the lender at his bank about the INS.
His payment if the full amt is to be repaid, will only be 422.00. This includes the taxes and INS. We have this in writing already!!
Taxes and Insurance have been in the loan amt from day 1. This isn’t any reason for the change.