verbal contract on home purchase later abandoned?
me and my then girlfriend talked about residing together, i told her she could stay with me at my place. i had a trailer on some property. she then said she refuses to live in a trailer she had grown up in one and wouldnt live in 1 again. she said to me why dont we buy a house together? we talked about it concidered our relationship and our finances and decided we couldnt do it alone but as a couple we could. we agreed we would purchase a home together both pay half the costs and the house would belong to both of us. we went shopping after verbaly agreeing that the house was both of ours and so was the cost. we bought a house, we both where on the mortgage and lived there for 1 year then decided to refiance with a different company for a better rate. her credit had dropped some from a credit card she had but we where still able to get the better rate and we refinanced. both our names where still on the mortgage. a year later after following our verball agreement from the start and written mortgage agreement we decided we would like to get some equity out of the home for ourselves . we approached the bank and it turns out my now fiance`s credit had dropped enough that we would be more apt to get the loan for equity with my name alone. we discussed this and the fact she feared if she wasnt on the loan she could lose out in someway. at this time we re-iterated our verbal agreement that the house belongs to both of us ,we both pay our half and regardless of the name on the loan it is our house together like we first agreed on and it wouldnt matter because we had now decided next febuary or march we would be married. we continue as we agreed paying our portions and a year passes. my soon to be be wife, (1 month till marriage) decides the financial strain we have experinced due to work cut backs is too much for her and she jets out on me my son , our daughter and the house. she informs me she doesnt want the house now and the mortgage is now my problem. is the verbal contract still solid? can i sue her for half the value of the house? can i sell the house and if there is loss sue her for half the loss to be payed to the mortgage company? what recourse do i have?
ok her name is on the deed from the first mortgage. as far as i know nothing has been done to take her name off the deed. what if we have to partition and sell the house and there are no proceeds but infact alot of left over debt. will she be liable for half that debt?
her name was on the first mortgage and the deed. her name is no longer on the mortgage but remains on the deed. is she still responsible for any of the debt seeing as her name remains on the deed but not on the new mortgage? or am i responsible for all of the debt because im on the mortgage and the deed? after and if i pay off the mortgage would she still have rights to ownership because she is still on the deed but didnt follow through with our verbal agreement?